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Japan was leveled to the ground by 1945.

What’s the excuse for not having the same GDP per capita 80 years later?

The curve became exponential way too late. And only after they (partially) opened up.



Japan was an industrialized country even before WWII, China was not. Moreover, both Japan and China used protectionism to nurture domestic industries.


They went from 100% communism to 90% capitalism, then had exponential growth, and we are supposed to believe the growth was because of the residual 10% communism.


When comparing a growth rate between 90/10 and 100/0 the difference is apparently explained by the 10


It’s 100/0 and 10/90.


America is 100/0 and China is 90/10. One of them is doing much better, and the difference is apparently explained by the 10.


If you are of the opinion that the people in China are living a better life we can stop the conversation. In that case we don't have any common ground for a fruitful discussion.


Exactly.




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